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Comments on Is the Explicit Symmetry Breaking of Vorticity Physically Significant in Fixing a Scale?

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Is the Explicit Symmetry Breaking of Vorticity Physically Significant in Fixing a Scale?

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I have been working on a theoretical framework that draws on concepts from conformal field theory (CFT) to describe fluid dynamics and could potentially be well suited for describing certain turbulent flows. In this approach, I use scalar and vector potentials to capture both conservative and non-conservative aspects of fluids, aiming to simplify complex fluid phenomena with a Maxwell-like formalism.

Overview of the Theory

In this model, fluid flows are described using real scalar $\phi$ and vector potentials $V^\mu = (p, v)$. The key feature is the introduction of a minimal coupling term $(D_\mu \phi)(D^\mu \phi)$, where $D_\mu$ represents a covariant derivative coupling $\phi$ to $V^{\mu}$. Notably, this term is conformally invariant, meaning it respects the symmetry under conformal dilatations (Weyl transformations) $\sigma = e^{\alpha}$. The full list of transformations is:

$\phi \rightarrow \sigma \phi$

$D^{\mu}\phi \rightarrow \sigma D^{\mu}\phi$

$V^{\mu} \rightarrow V^{\mu} + \alpha^{\mu}$

$g_{\mu \nu} \rightarrow \sigma^{-2}g_{\mu \nu}$

To further characterize the fluid dynamics, I define a vorticity tensor $\Omega_{\mu \nu}$, analogous to the electromagnetic field tensor in electrodynamics. Instead of $E$ and $B$ fields, I define the transport field as $U = (v \cdot \nabla)v = -\nabla p - \frac{\partial v}{\partial t}$ and vorticity $W = \nabla \times v$. For the total Lagrangian for the system, $\mathcal{L}_{T}$, I included a kinetic term for the vorticity, $\frac{1}{4} \Omega_{\mu \nu} \Omega^{\mu \nu}$. However, this kinetic term explicitly breaks the conformal symmetry, leading to potentially interesting physical consequences.

$\frac{1}{4} \Omega_{\mu \nu}\Omega^{\mu \nu} \rightarrow \sigma^{-4} \frac{1}{4} \Omega_{\mu \nu}\Omega^{\mu \nu}$

Equations of Motion and Symmetry Breaking

The equations of motion derived from this framework are:

$D_{\mu}D^{\mu} \phi = 0$, which is conformally invariant, and $\partial_\mu \Omega^{\mu \nu} = j^\nu$, where the current $j^\nu$ transforms as $j^\mu \rightarrow \sigma^{2} j^\mu$. This equation is not conformally invariant, indicating a breaking of the symmetry. $\partial_{\mu}\Omega^{\mu \nu}$ and $j^{\mu}$ do not transform the same under $\sigma$.

This explicit symmetry breaking due to the kinetic term seems to introduce a fixed scale into the theory, which in general is crucial for describing fluid phenomena that exhibit characteristic lengths, such as vortex dynamics and turbulence.

Furthermore, the conserved quantity $\frac{Q}{\rho} = \oint U \cdot dS$ acts as an analog to electric charge in electromagnetism, with units corresponding to mass flow rate (kg/s$^2$). This "charge" represents sources or sinks of advective acceleration in the fluid, similar to how electric charge induces an electromagnetic field.

I am particularly interested in understanding whether this explicit symmetry breaking is physically significant. How does this compare to explicit symmetry breaking in other physical theories, and what implications might it have for understanding complex fluid phenomena like vortex shedding and turbulence? Typically the only examples I find are in the context of quantum field theory, not classical field theory.

Any insights or feedback from the community would be greatly appreciated!

Edit:

We want our scalar field $\phi$ to be symmetric under local scaling transformations of the form $\phi \rightarrow \sigma \phi$. To ensure this invariance we introduce the covariant derivative \begin{equation} D^{\mu} = \partial^{\mu} - V^{\mu} \end{equation} where the field $V^{\mu} = (p, v)$ is the solenoidal velocity and it’s associated pressure. The covariant derivative couples $\phi$ to $V^{\mu}$ while still respecting the scaling symmetry

\begin{equation*} D^{\mu}(\sigma \phi) = \sigma D^{\mu} \phi. \end{equation*}

We can then modify our Lagrangian for the theory $\mathcal{L}(\phi, \partial_{\mu}\phi) \rightarrow \mathcal{L}(\phi, D_{\mu}\phi)$ so the Lagrangian for this free field theory (minimal coupling) is then \begin{equation*} \mathcal{L}= (D_{\mu}\phi)(D^{\mu}\phi) \end{equation*} which have the equations of motion $D_{\mu}D^{\mu}\phi = 0$ or \begin{equation} \partial_{\mu}\partial^{\mu}\phi - V_{\mu}\partial^{\mu}\phi - V^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}\phi-\partial_{\mu}V^{\mu}\phi + V^{\mu}V_{\mu}\phi = 0. \end{equation}

There are some coupling and potential terms that emerge characterized by the field $V^{\mu}$ and parameter $\alpha$. Perhaps these are the origin of the potentials you were talking about?

I think an example might help elude what the parameter $\sigma$ could represent physically. The most tractable example I have is the simple case of acoustic waves, as they are easily represented with a scalar field $\phi$ in one spatial dimension $x$.

First I want to clarify that we are fixing the background field $V^{\mu}$ with $V^{\mu} \approx \delta V^{\mu} = \alpha^{\mu}$ were $\alpha^1$ is a constant which effectively suppresses the vorticity.

The equations of motion in $(t, x)$ reduce to

\begin{equation*} \frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial t^2} - \frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial x^2} - 2\alpha \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} + \alpha^{2}\phi = 0 \end{equation*}

which is the Webster horn equation but with an extra term $\alpha^2 \phi$ which has the effect of phase shifting the solutions. We can recognize the symmetry operator here as $\sigma = e^{\alpha x}$ representing the geometry (curvature in this case) of the exponential horn. This is reflected in the canonical Webster Horn equation, where the equations of motion are invariant under any choice of initial cross-sectional area due to the term $\sigma^{-1} \frac{d \sigma}{d x}$. If the cross sectional area can be represented by $S(x) = S_0 \sigma = S_0 e^{\alpha x}$ then the term will always reduce to $\alpha$ no matter the choice of $S_0$. This type of self-similarity is expected in a theory that is scale invariant.

As far as why do all this when Helmholtz-decomposition is perfectly adequate? Why not? Recasting theories in different frameworks can add new perspectives and potentially insights into known phenomenon. I have gained some weird deep intuition about certain principles while engaging in this representation and have found myself baffled many times. I also intend to use this framework as the foundation for future work in emergent fluid-like structures, but I am not nearly there yet.

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2 comment threads

This discussion has been moved. (1 comment)
Clarifying questions. (3 comments)
Clarifying questions.

First, a brief feedback on your explicit question. We don't normally use words "symmetry breaking" or "scaling symmetries" in fluid mechanics. That's why your question about comparison to symmetry breaking in fluid mechanics is rather niche. But according to your derivation, we can reformulate your question in plain English: you found a scaling parameter and want to know how it can be used in fluid mechanics. This boils down to a simple question: what on Earth does your scaling physically mean. Once this question is answered, it will be obvious how to apply it to fluid mechanics. So we have to make sense of what your derivation means physically. I notice you cite quantum mechanics. I myself am learning quantum mechanics. I noticed that professors of quantum mechanics say forget about physics, just do mathematics and you'll be good. This is exactly what I am seeing in your derivation: no physics talk. But since you are applying this to mechanics, you can return to the physics roots.

Another little remark from me. Lagrangian or Hamiltonian formulations of mechanics are not common in fluid mechanics to say the least. The latest breakthrough article claiming to show a way to transform the Navier-Stokes into the Hamiltonian framework is J.W.Sanders, A.C.DeVoria, N.J.Washuta, G.A.Elamin, K.L.Skenes, J.C.Berlinghieri, "A canonical Hamiltonian formulation of the problem of the Navier-Stokes problem", Journal of fluid mechanics, 2024, 984:A27, doi:10.10017/jfm.2024.229

Ivan Nepomnyashchikh‭ wrote 4 months ago · edited 4 months ago

Let's return to my original interest: what does all that beautiful math mean physically? Let's go step by step. You start, essentially, with Helmholtz decomposition. That's good because it is a common thing in fluid mechanics. Then you apply your covariant derivative condition claiming that it "couples" flow potential to vector potential. I have been trying to understand this. My guess is the following. General Helmholtz decomposition is not unique. And, normally, we use different conditions to get unique flow and vector potentials. I suspect your covariant derivative condition is a way to get the unique potentials. Am I right? If so, I have two questions. First, is less important. We already have unique solutions for Helmohltz decomposition specific to fluid mechanics - why do you need something else? Second, is what this "coupling" physically means. Can you expand this term for a simple case of a 1D flow streamline, please? My own attempt at such an expansion has been fruitless.